QUESTION 30 Gloves are not to be worn when drawing blood from a patient True False QUESTION 31 When choosing a venipuncture needle, you know the smaller the gauge the larger the needle diameter True False QUESTION 32 Match the following D10W 1/4 NS D5RL NS A. 10% Dextrose in water B. 0.9% NaCl C. 5% Dextrose in Ringer’s Lactate D. 0.225 % NaCl
Detection of Sickle-Cell Disease by Gel Electrophoresis Firee samples of hemoglobin have been subjected to protein gel electrophoresis. Protein gel electrophoresis different composition. ) is carried out in the same manner as DNA gel electrophoresis (see Fig. 10.8) except the gel hasa
1. Sickle-cell hemoglobin (Hb) migrates more Figure 10.10 Gel slowly toward the positive pole than normal hemoglobin (Hb) because the amino acid valine has no polar R groups, whereas the amino acid Pole glutamic acid does have a polar R group.
2. In Figure 10.10, which lane contains only Hb signifying that the individual is Hb Hb
3. Which lane contains only Hb, signifying that the individual is HVHp?
4. Which lane contains both Hbs and Hb, signifying -Pole that the individual is Hb Hb? Lane 1 Lane 2 Lane 3 Detection by Genomic Sequencing You are a genetic counselor. A young couple seeks your advice because sickle-cell disease occurs among the family members of each. You order DNA base sequencing to be done. The results come back that at one of the loci for normal hemoglobin, each has the abnormal sequence CAC instead of CTC. The other locus is normal.
What are the chances that this couple will have a child with sickle-cell disease? Conclusion: Detecting Genetic Disorders
What two methods of detecting sickle-cell disease were described in this section? Which method is more direct and probably requires more expensive equipment to do?_
Which method probably preceded the other method as a means to detect sickle-cell disease?
The patient was an 80-year-old female who 10 days previously had a cystocele repair performed. At the time of that hospital admission, a urine culture was ontained that revealed > 100,000 CFU/ml of an Escherichia coli strain that was suusceptible to all antimicrobial agents against which it was tested.
Postoperatively, she began a 7-day course of oral cephalexin. She was discharged after an uneventful postoperative courser of 3 days. Ten days postoperatively, she presented with a 3-day history of diarrhea.
The patient noted multiple, watery, loose stools without blood, crampy abdominal pain, and vomiting. She presented with a temperature of 38.2 C, pulse rate of 90/min, respiratory rate of 20/min, and blood pressure of 116/53 mm Hg. Her white blood cell count was normal, but a large number (53%) of immature polymorphonuclear cells were seen.
Physical examination, electrolytes, liver enzymes, and lipase were all within normal limits. A methylene blue strain for fecal leukocytes showed the presence of rod-shaped bacteria. Cultures for Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Campylobacter were all negative. An enzyme immunoassay (EIA) that was positive for the presence of a bacterial toxin in the stool established the patient’s diagnosis.
1. What organism was causing this woman’s diarrhea?
2. For most agents of bacterial diarrheal disease, culture is used to establish the etiology of disease. Why is this strategy not useful in this disease?
Why is toxin detection employed to diagnose this disease? How well does it work?
3. What in her history was a predisposing factor for her development of this infection? How did it predispose her?
4. Why is this organism particularly problematic as a nosocomial pathogen?
5. What virulence factors does this organism produce, and what roles do these factors play in the pathogenesis of the disease?
6. Discuss three different types of therapeutic strategies that can be used to treat this disease.
the several other 10.4 to show t
3. The base uracil substitutes for the base thymine in RNA. Complete Table ways RNA differs from DNA Table 10.4 DNA Structure Compared with RNA Structure RNA Sugar Bases Strands Helix DNA Deoxyribose Adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine Double stranded with base pairing Yes Complementary Base Pairing Complementary base pairing occurs between DNA and RNA. The RNA base uracil pairs with the DNA base adenine; the other bases pair as shown previously.
Complete Table 10.5 to show the compleme bases for the RNA bases. Table 10.5 RNA bases DNA bases DNA and RNA Bases 10.3 DNA and Protein Synthesis Protein synthesis requires the processes of transcription and translation. During transcription, which takes place in the nucleus, an RNA molecule called messenger RNA (mRNA) is made complementary to one of the DNA strands.
This mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. Ribosomes are composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins in two subunits. They provide a location for protein synthesis to occur During translation, RNA molecules called transfer RNA (tRNA) bring amino acids to the ribosome. and the amino acids join in the order prescribed by mRNA.
In this way, the sequence of amino acids in a new polypeptide was originally specified by DNA, demonstrating that DNA carries the codes to make all of the proteins necessary for a cell to function. Explain the role DNA, mRNA, and tRNA have in protein synthesis here: DNA mRNA RNA 106 Laboratory 10 DNA Biology and Technology 10-6
How can nurse managers use Massachusetts state profiles to improve quality outcomes or the practice environment? how various healthcare policies, regulations, or laws may have impacted healthcare operations and the information presented in the Massachusetts profiles.
I have to do a concept math to this story Jesus Garcia is a 28yo who was directly admitted to the medical unit on Tuesday evening with a diagnosis of dehydration. Fifteen days ago, Jesus underwent a partial colectomy with creation of a transverse colostomy. Jesus’ girlfriend Virginia has been taking care of him since discharge and reports that Jesus has resisted participation in colostomy care.
Virginia needs to return to her full-time job and is concerned with how Jesus will manage without her at his side. Please give 3 assessments, 3 risk factors for this patient, 3 psychosocial concerns, and 3 labs and diagnostics for this patient.
A severe allergic response can cause death True False QUESTION 2 Allergies are the _______ leading chronic disease in the U.S. 5th 8th 10th 15th
Allergic reactions manifest as skin reactions such as itching or hives respiratory reactions such as wheezing or shortness of breath GI reactions such as nausea or vomiting All of the above
Johnny, a 10-year-old male, is a known asthmatic. You have babysat him several times and know he has asthma.
This child has been running around outside and now has dyspnea, wheezing, cyanosis around his lips (circumoral cyanosis), and a pulse rate of 120 bpm.
Which of the following signs/symptoms, if any, would cause you to take him to the emergency room?
Choose all that apply. circumoral cyanosis wheezing dyspnea tachycardia
QUESTION 5 In asthma: Exhalation restricted Inhalation is restricted wheezing occurs upon inhalation crackle occur during exhalation QUESTION 6
Asthmatic triggers can be pollen, dander, dust food, tobacco smoke, exercise NISAIDS, injections, stings all of the above
Name the control medications that help to control airway swelling. Choose all that apply. steroids beta-agonists dextromethorphan guaifenesin
If you discover a patient who has been injured in the hallway run immediately to the nearest unit desk and ask for help run to the nearest patient room and use the phone to call the unit desk stay with the patient and call for help run to the patient’s room and see if a family member can come and help you lift the patient QUESTION 9
When the blood glucose level is greater than 240mg/dl, or the person is pregnant, or if a type 1 diabetic has been ill, the following blood or urine test is performed Calcium Cholesterol Ketones Lipids
Ketoacidosis is usually seen in patient who are _________ diabetics Type 1 Type 2 QUESTION 11 You should call 911 under which circumstance a. The person is unconscious. b. The person is diaphoretic. c. The person is experiencing tachypnea. d. all of the above e. a and b QUESTION 12 If the person is diabetic and has become weak and faint, you should give them a diet drink to help them recover True False
When someone falls a distance of _________ time their height it is considered a severe fall 8 6 4 3 QUESTION 14
Factors to consider when assessing the victim the area of the body which hit 1st and what happened to cause the fall the results of a quick physical assessment and the person’s vital signs the time of day and temperature at the time of the fall the level of consciousness of the person 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4
QUESTION 15 Falling onto ones head is considered severe no matter the distance of the fall if the fall is from 5 feet is from 8 feet 10 feet
When someone has fallen, before you approach that person which is the 1st thing that you do and what is the 2nd? assess the victim assess the situation
A symptom of a head injury would be stiff neck, puplis of unequal size, loss of coordination inability to wake up, slurred speech, agitation numbness in the arms or legs, confusion, headache that does not go away all of the above
If you suspect a head injury you should shake the person to determine if they respond pick the person up if it is a child and comfort them remove the helmet if the person had a cycling accident do none of the above
The 1st phase of the clotting mechanism is coagulation fibrinolysis platelet degranulation vasoconstriction
The proper order of draw for the following tubes is: – 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Grey Lavender Blood Culture/Yellow Light Blue Red Green
Select the appropriate tube for the following lab tests Chemistry Profile CBC Prothrombin Time Fasting glucose Drug level A. red top B. purple/lavender top C. blue top D. grey top E. green top
Mr Boswell has an IV in his left forearm. You are requested to collect a cbc and a pro time from Mr Boswell. He has a cast on his right arm from the palm of his hand to his shoulder.
You need to collect a full lavender top tube and a full light blue top tube. Where will you attempt to collect the blood specimen? from a finger stick on his right hand from his left ankle from his left hand from the antecubital area of his left arm
The appropriate needle gauge for drawing blood is 15-17 18-20 21-23 25-28
QUESTION 27 Match the coagulation pathway with the site of occurrence Intrinsic Pathway Extrinsic Pathway A. within the cells B. tissue thromboplastin
QUESTION 28 Match the tube type with the additive of the tube Lavender Light Blue Grey Green
B. Na Citrate
C. Anti-glycolytic agent
D. Heparin QUESTION 29 Match the following blood components to their appropriate information RBC WBC PLT A. 100 – 120 days life cycle B. 5,000 to 10,0000/mm3 normal quantity C. 9 – 12 days life cycle
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